Rguhs Mbbs Question Papers of Previous Exams: April 2014

Orthopaedics paper of June/July 2011

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. PHASE III (Part-II) Degree Examination - June / July 2011

Time: 3 Hours [Max. Marks: 100]

SURGERY - ORTHOPAEDICS - Paper I (Revised Scheme II)

Your answer shall be specific to question asked. Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever

necessary. Use separate answer books for section A and section B.

QP Code: 1096 - Section B - Orthopaedics [50 marks]

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks

1. Describe the classification, clinical features, diagnosis and management of osteosarcoma
2. Define delayed union and nonunion; describe causes diagnosis and treatment of nonunion

SHORT ESSAY 3 X 5 = 15 Marks

3. Diagnosis and treatment of avascular necrosis
4. Splinting
5. Radiological features of osteoarthritis

SHORT ANSWERS 5 X 3 = 15 Marks

6. Meralgia paraesthetica
7. Loose bodies
8. Arthrodesis
9. Cold abscess
10. Tendon transfer

* * * * *

General Surgery Paper 1 of June/July 2011

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. PHASE III (Part-II) Degree Examination - June / July 2011

Time: 3 Hours [Max. Marks: 100]

SURGERY - Paper I (Revised Scheme II)

Your answer shall be specific to question asked.

Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

QP Code: 1095 - Section A – General Surgery [50 marks]

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks

1. Enumerate the causes of lower limb ischemia. Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features and
management of Thrombo angitis oblitrans
2. Classify burns. Discuss the management of 60% burns in a patient weighing 60Kg.

SHORT ESSAY 3 X 5 = 15 Marks

3. Total parenteral nutrition
4. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
5. ANDI

SHORT ANSWERS 5 X 3 = 15 Marks

6. Thyroglossal fistula
7. Secondary hemorrhage
8. Carbuncle
9. Hypokalemia
10. Frey’s syndrome

Medicine Paper 2 of June/July 2011

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination – June / July 2011

Time: 3 Hrs. [Max. Marks: 100]

GENERAL MEDICINE – Paper - II (Revised Scheme II)

QP Code: 1094

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.

Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks

1. Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations & management of Bronchiectasis
2. Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations & management of cerebral
hemorrhage

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks

3. Mini – mental state examination
4. Antipsychotic drugs
5. Consequences of chronic alcohol misuse
6. Oral anti – diabetic drugs
7. Clinical features of Thyrotoxicosis
8. COX – 2 inhibitors
9. Physical signs in chronic renal failure
10. Multidrug – resistant TB
11. Chronic tophaceous gout
12. Anticonvulsant drug therapy

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks

13. Molluscum contagiosum
14. Lumbar puncture
15. Light’s criteria for distinguishing pleural transudate from exudates
16. Causes of urticaria
17. Microalbuminuria
18. Criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis
19. Treatment of Gonorrhoea in adults
20. Felty’s syndrome
21. Hallucinations
22. Oral glucose tolerance test: WHO diagnostic criteria

* * * * *

Medicine paper 1 of June/July 2011

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - June / July 2011

Time: 3 Hrs. [Max. Marks: 100]

GENERAL MEDICINE – Paper - I (Revised Scheme II)

QP Code: 1093

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.

Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks

1. Discuss causes, clinical features and treatment of cirrhosis of liver
2. Discuss clinical features, complications and management of Typhoid fever

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks

3. Clinical features and treatment of Barbiturate poisoning
4. Effects of vitamin D deficiency and its treatment
5. Swine Flu
6. Thalassaemia
7. Pathophysiology of heart failure
8. Discuss anti – arrhythmic drugs
9. Pathophysiological basis of helicobacter pylori in gastric ulcer
10. Irritable bowel syndrome
11. Blood transfusion therapy
12. Effects of radiation exposure

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks

13. Name the 3 clinical syndromes of alcoholic liver disease
14. Modified Duke’s criteria for IE
15. Treatment of Hyperkalaemia
16. Post – exposure prophylaxis of Rabies
17. Schilling’s test
18. Imatinib
19. Name complications of acute MI
20. Causes of chronic intestinal pseudo – obstruction
21. Risk factors of Hepatitis C infection
22. Name pancreatic enzymes
* * * * *

Paediatrics question paper of June/July 2011

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences

M.B.B.S. (PART – II), III Professional Examination - June / July 2011

Time: 3 Hrs. [Max. Marks: 100]

PAEDIATRICS (Revised Scheme II)

QP Code: 1092

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked.

Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

LONG ESSAY 2 X 10 = 20 Marks

1. Describe Etiology, clinical features and management of acute bronchiolitis in children

2. Describe Etiology, clinical features and management of Nephrotic syndrome in children

SHORT ESSAY 10 X 5 = 50 Marks

3. Hemodynamics of ventricular septal defect

4. Clinical features of vitamin A deficiency

5. Complications of Measles

6. Nutritional advantages of breast feeding

7. Management of cerebral malaria

8. Congenital hypothyroidism

9. Management of severe dehydration

10. Management of snake bite

11. Clinical features of Down's syndrome

12. Management of Beta Thalassemia

SHORT ANSWERS 10 X 3 = 30 Marks

13. Central cyanosis

14. Peripheral blood smear findings in iron deficiency anemia

15. Pica

16. Hemophilus influenza B (HiB) vaccine

17. Hyperkalemia

18. High risk neonate

19. Klumpke’s paralysis

20. Hepatitis A prevention

21. Three causes of short stature

22. Urine findings of urinary tract infection